MSITX - Medication Exam

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Medication Exam

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1. Which of these abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be administered AT REGULARLY SPACED INTERVALS during each 24- hour period: *	a. q 12b. qidc. q 6h; prn
2. How many milligrams are equivalent to 0.045 grams: *	a. 4.5b. 45c. 450
3. Which of these doses is the smallest: *	a) 0.1 gmb) 0.01 mgc) 10 mg
4. A child is to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil) 60 mg po. The medication is supplied as an oral suspension containing 125 mg per 5 ml. How many milliliters should the child receive: *	a. 1.2 b. 2.4 c. 25
5. A patient is to receive cephalexin (Keflex) 1.gm po. Keflex is available as 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered: *	a. 1b. 2c. 4
6. A patient is to receive cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B-12) 30 mcg IM. Vitamin B-12 is available in 100 mcg per ml. How many milliliters should be administered: *	a. 0.1b. 0.3c. 3.0
7. Penicillin G sodium for injection contains 250,000 units per milliliter. How many units would there be in 2.5 ml: *	a. 575;000 b. 625;000 c. 675;000
8. A patient is to receive meperidine (Demerol) hydrochloride 75 mg and atropine sulfate 0.3 mg IM pre-operatively. Demerol is available in a prepackaged syringe containing 100 mg per ml. Atropine is available in a vial containing 0.4 mg per ml. If th *	a) 1.05b) 1.5c) 2.0
9. A patient is to receive 500 ml of IV fluids in 3 hours. The infusion pump should be set to deliver how many milliliters per hour: *	a. 83b. 138c. 167
10. A patient is to receive 300 ml of IV fluid during a two and one-half hour period. The intravenous setup delivers 15 drops per ml. The drip mechanism should be regulated to deliver approximately how many drops per minute: *	a. 10b. 20c. 30
11. A patient is to receive 1,000 ml of IV solution over 8 hours. Four hours later 620 ml remain. The infusion set delivers 15 drops per ml. To receive the remaining fluid within the prescribed time period the set should deliver how many drops per min *	a. 39b. 62c. 100
12. A patient is to receive gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 75 mg IV in 100 ml diluent over one hour. The intravenous setup delivers 60 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the patient receive: *	a. 60b. 75c. 100
13. A patient is to receive digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.35 mg IV. Lanoxin is available in a pre-packaged syringe containing 0.5 mg per 2 ml. How many milliliters should be administered: *	a. 0.75b. 1.25c. 1.40
14. Which of these is a major principle of pain management and should guide nursing action when administering prescribed analgesics to patients: *	a. The patient in pain is the authority about the pain experienceb. The patient with acute pain experiences more pain than one with chronic painc. The patient with psychogenic pain does not experience real pain
15. A nurse is preparing to administer quinidine sulfate to a patient and finds this entry on the medication administration record: *	a) administering quinidine po with other scheduled medicationsbr />b) checking the physicians order for the quinidine in the patients chart c) counting the patients pulse for a full minute before administering the quinidine
16. An older adult patient who is receiving a large volume intravenous infusion of 5% glucose in water develops tachycardia and dyspnea. Which of these nursing actions is indicated first: *	a) Check the infusion site for signs of infiltration b) Decrease the rate of the infusion c) Monitor oral fluid intake
17. Trimethobenzamide hydrochloride (Tigan) suppositories are prescribed for a patient to control nausea and vomiting. the nurse should use which of these measures when administering the Tigan suppository: *	a. Having the patient take slow; deep breaths during insertionb. Asking the patient to assume a lithotomy position for insertionc. checking the patients vital signs prior to insertion
18. Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions given to a patient who is taking an antihypertensive drug such as atenolol (Tenormin): *	a) If dizziness occurs as a side effect; schedule drug administration to allow for a half hour rest period after ingestion b) Should any dizziness occur; skip the next dose of the drug to determine if it is drug related c) Report any dizziness; as a dosage change may be indicated
19. A patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) daily. At which of these times should Synthroid be scheduled for administration: *	a) Before breakfastb) With lunchc) At bedtime
20. A patient is receiving aminophylline IV for treatment of bronchospasm. In addition to respiratory rate and volume, which of these assessments is essential: *	a. Temperature b. Pulse rate c. Urinary output
21. A recently hired nurse is administering medications to residents in a long-term care facility where identification wristbands are not used. The nurse does not know many of the residents. Which of these actions would most safely ensure that they rec *	a. Ask the residents their names prior to drug administration b. Call out the full name of each resident c. Have a staff member who knows the residents identify them by name
22. A major advantage of the patient controlled analgesia (PCA) pump is that: *	a) the nurses assessments of the patients pain can be safely performed at less frequent intervals b) the nurse and the patient are provided with a record of how much medication is used c) the patients pain relief is more sustained
23. A patient has an order for acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) 0.6 gm po q 4h prn for temperature of 102 degrees F (39 degrees C) or greater. The patients temperature at 8 a.m. is 102.4 degrees F (39.1 degrees C) and the nurse administers Aspirin. It is essential for the nurse to record the time of Aspirin administration and the: *	a. patients temperature at 9AM b. expected outcome of the medication c. patients pulse and blood pressure
24. A patients family member requests that the patient be given a prescribed narcotic analgesic. The nurse prepares the medication for administration but the patient refuses to take it. Which of these actions by the nurse would be appropriate: *	a. Encourage the patient to reconsider taking the medication b. Label the medication and replace it for use at a later time c. Discard the medication in the presence of a witness and chart the action
25. When administering a medication to a patient via nasogastric tube, the nurse should take which of these actions: *	a) Depress the bulb of the syringe to facilitate the flow of the medication b) Avoid the addition of water into the syringe to prevent unnecessary dilution of the medication c) Hold the syringe high enough to allow the medication to flow in by gravity
26. Which of these steps is appropriate when administering heparin sodium subcutaneously: *	a. Use a 22-gauge; 1-inch needle when preparing the injectionb. Aspirate after insertion to check for entry into a blood vesselc. Apply gentle pressure to injection site for 5 to 10 seconds without massage
27. Which of these instructions is appropriate to give to a patient who has angina pectoris and is to take sub-lingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) as needed: *	a. if pain is not relieved after one tablet dissolves wait on half hour and take a second tablet b. if pain is not relieved after one tablet dissolves you may take another tablet c. if pain is not relieved after one tablet dissolves; next time start by taking two tablets
28. A patient is to receive anti-tubercular therapy at home. Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions for this patient: *	a) Take the drugs as ordered by the physician b) Limit contacts with family members to short periods c) Eat foods that are especially high in iron
29. When administering eye drops to a patient, the nurse should place the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to: *	a. Reduce systemic absorption of the medication b. Increase circulation to the area c. Prevent injury to the cornea
30. A patient is receiving 1000 ml of 5 percent glucose and 0.45 percent normal saline with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the patients: *	a. Pulse rateb. Daily weightc. Skin turgor
31. A patient is to receive 20 units of isophane (NPH) insulin and 10 units of insulin injection (Regular Insulin). Which of these techniques should the nurse use when preparing the injection: *	a. Draw up each insulin in a separate syringeb. Withdraw the NPH insulin first and then the Regular Insulin in the same syringec. Withdraw the Regular Insulin first and then the NPH insulin in the same syringe
32. The nurse is preparing to administer antibiotic drops in a patients left ear. In which of these positions should the patient be placed: *	a; High Fowlersb. Right side lyingc. Prone
33. A patient is to take prednisone 10 mg po qid. The nurse should schedule this medication to be administered: *	a. Before meals and at bedtimeb. Every six hoursc. After meals and at bedtime
34. A patient is to use miconazole nitrate (Monistat) vaginal suppositories for three consecutive days. Which of these instructions should the nurse give the patient: *	a. Insert the Monistat one finger length into the vaginab. Use a non-medicated douche before inserting the Monistatc. Store the Monistat at room temperature for easier use
35. When a patient is receiving morphine sulfate for pain control, the patient is likely to have: *	a. A hyperactive cough reflexb. Decreased intestinal mobilityc. A widening pulse pressure
36. Antibiotic therapy should be carried out for the prescribed length of time for which of these reasons: *	a. To prevent the occurrence of super infections b. To encourage the development of antibodies c. To eradicate the targeted organism
37. A patient who is taking gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) should be assessed for: *	a. Acoustic nerve damageb. Hypertensionc. Hypoglycemia
38. A patient will be discharged on rifampin (Rifadin) and isoniazid (ING) for treatment of tuberculosis. Which of these questions should the nurse include in the discharge assessment: *	a. Do You wear soft contact lenses b. Do you wear a hearing aid c. Do you wear dentures
39. Sulindac (Clinoril), which is used for long-term symptomatic treatment of arthritis, has a long half-life, which causes the drug to: *	a. Produce fewer side effect b. Be more fully metabolized in the liver c. Have a prolonged duration of action
40. A patient who is taking an anti-hypertensive drug such as clonidine hydrochloride (Catapres) is likely to have which of these side effects: *	a. Excessive tearingb. Constipationc. Increased sexual desires
41. Because of the action of the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), a patient receiving this drug should be given which of these instructions: *	a. Include potassium rich foods in the diet b. Restrict sodium intake to a minimum c. Avoid eating high fiber foods
42. A patient is being treated for angina pectoris with nifedipine (Procardia). Which of these side effects is likely to occur: *	a) Petechiae b) Peripheral edema c) Retinal detachment
43. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) hydrochloride is used therapeutically to: *	a. Induce alterations in the autonomic regulation of the heart b. Slow myocardial muscle cell re-polarization c. Control ventricular irritability
44. A patient who has recently started on quinidine sulfate therapy is to be discharged. Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions the nurse gives the patient: *	a. Notify the physician if feelings of faintness occurb. Increase the intake of fruit; fruit juices; and milkc. If nausea occurs take one dose of a sodium bicarbonate antacid such as Alka-Seltzer
45. Ordered: Heparin 20,000 U SQ stat: Available: Heparin 10,000 U/ml 10-ml vial: Calculate the number of ml/dose *	a) 1 ml/dose b) .2 ml/dose c) 20 ml/dose
46. A patient is receiving isophane (NPH) insulin at 7 a.m. each morning. Which of these instructions should the nurse emphasize: *	a. Have a snack in the mid-afternoon b. Be sure and eat lunch by noon c. Eat breakfast immediately after giving your injection
47. Folic acid is useful in the treatment of megaloblastic anemia, since its action is to: *	a. Increase white blood cell life span b. Stimulate red blood cell production c. Produce hemolysis of abnormal platelets
48. Which of these drugs may be used in conjunction with the anti-psychotic drugs such as fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) and haloperidol (Haldol), to relieve the extra-pyramidal side effects of the anti-psychotics: *	a. Levodopa (Larodopa) b. Benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
49. Patients who have been abusing amphetamines or cocaine are likely to display which of these symptoms when these drugs are abruptly withdrawn: *	a) Dryness of mouth b) Depression c) Pedal edema
50. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for a malignancy is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen), a colony stimulation factor. The purpose of Neupogen is to: *	a) Stimulate the metabolism of T cells in the lymph nodes b) Regulate the production of neutrophils in the bone marrow c) Increases the destruction of monocytes in the liver
51. The FIVE RIGHTS concerning dosage administration are: *	a) Right patient; Right drug; Right dose; Right route; Right time b) Dose quantity; number of refills; Right patient; Right dose; Right route c) True story; Right patient; Right drug; Right dose; Right route
52. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an antineoplastic drug, has which of these effects: *	a. It depresses the white blood cell count b. It increases the rate at which platelets multiply c. It causes local irritation when given intravenously
53. Elderly patients are particularly prone to developing which of these adverse effects as a result of receiving alprazolam (Xanax): *	a. Urinary retentionb. Disorientationc. Muscular rigidity
54. Methocarbamol (Robaxin) is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant that has which of these side effects: *	a. Lightheadednessb. Jaundicec. Pedal edema
55. A patient has received flurazepam (Dalmane) for sleep. Because of the effect of this drug, which of these nursing actions is appropriate: *	a. Observe the patient for signs of widening pulse pressureb. Encourage the patient to sleep in semi Fowlers positionc. Keep a night light on in the patients room
56. When anticonvulsive medications such as phenytoin (Dilantin) sodium are stopped abruptly, the patient is at risk for the development of: *	a. A severe hypoglycemic reaction b. A cerebral vascular occlusion c. Status epilepticus
57. Ordered: Flagyl 500 mg. po BID; Available: Flagyl (metronidazole H) 250 mg tab: Calculate the number of tab/dose *	a) 1.5 tab b) 1/2 tab c) 2 tabs
58. A patient taking all of the following drugs complains of having a sore throat. For which of these drugs is a sore throat considered a side effect: *	a. Indomethacin (Indocin) b. Digoxin (Lanoxin) c. Chlorpomazine (Thorazine) hydrochloride