MSITX - TELEMETRY EXAM

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TELEMETRY EXAM

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1. All of the following are true about Nifedipine EXCEPT: *	a) Potent peripheral vasodilator b) Decreases rate of SA node firing c) Potent beta blocker d) Prevents coronary vasospasms
2. The therapeutic dose of Heparin is best determined by which lab value: *	a) Prothrombin time (PT) b) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) c) Platelet count d) Fibrinogen split product
3. After defibrillation, the patents ECG shows normal sinus rhythm: the patient has no palpable pulses. You would provide the following treatment: *	a) Continuation of CPR b) Administration of Epinephrine c) Investigation of possible causes d) All of the above
4. Persistent tachycardia: *	a) Increases myocardial ischemia b) Decreases coronary artery filling during diastole c) Increases myocardial oxygen demand d) All of the above
5. The usual dosage range of intravenous aminophylline is: *	a) 5 - 10 mg/h b) 10 - 60 mg/h c) 250 - 500 mg/h d) 0.5 - 2.0 Gm/h
6. Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to reverse the effects of heparin: *	a) Neosynephrine b) Mannitol 10% c) Protamine sulfate d) Vitamin K
7. The treatment for hypoglycemia may include any of the following EXCEPT: *	a) I V glucose b) Gilucagon c) Food d) Insulin
8. Which of the following drug(s) is(are) contraindicated in patients with bleeding disorders: *	a) Aqueous penicillin G b) Lasix c) Acetaminophen d) Aspirin
9. The usual order for carrying out physical assessment of the abdomen is: *	a) Inspection; palpation; auscultation; percussion b) Inspection; percussion; palpation; auscultation c) Inspection; auscultation; percussion; palpation d) Inspection; auscultation; palpation; percussion
10. The nurse administers nitroglycerin sublingually to Mr. Park for his anginal pain. Which of the following best explains the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin on the heart: *	a) Decreases the heart rate b) Vasoconstricts the coronary arteries c) Dilates coronary arteries d) Decreases muscle contractility
11. The anticholinergic drug often used for a symptomatic sinus bradycardia or heart block is: *	a) Isuprel b) Atropine c) Morphine d) Lidocaine
12. Propranolol (Inderal) is used to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and ectopic beats. It is especially good for accelerated SVT (supra-ventricular tachycardia). It is in the following drug classification: *	a) Alpha stimulator b) Alpha blocker c) Beta stimulator d) Beta blocker
13. Diuretics are frequently prescribed for patients with CHF. Which of the following drugs is potassium sparing and SHOULD NOT cause hypokalemia: *	a) Aldactoneb) Lasixc) Hydro-DIURILd) Esidrix
14. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving Lanoxin 0.25 mg. p.o.q day. Which of the following signs or symptoms would alert the nurse to the possibility that the patient has digoxin toxicity: *	a) A pulse rate of 62 b) Nausea; vomiting and abdominal pain c) Serum potassium of 3.0 meg/L d) Oxygen saturation of 89%
15. Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of hypertension: *	a) Captopril (Capoten) b) Diazepam (Valium) c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) d) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
16. When an abnormal cardiac rhythm (heart rate) is identified or suspected, the nurse should assess: *	a) Blood pressure b) Mentation c) Presence or absence of chest pain d) All of the above
17. Ms. Nunex has an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion. Your FIRST nursing intervention is to: *	a) Administer Benadryl IV b) Stop the transfusion c) Call the doctor d) Collect a urine specimen to check for hematuria
18. The nurse should watch for complications in the patient undergoing femoral angiogram. Which of the following is a complication: *	a) Warmth and flushing occur as the dye is injected b) Marked diuresis occurs after the test c) Distal pulses are absent 30 minutes after dye is injected d) The site doesnt bleed after 15 minutes
19. Mr. Daniels diagnosis is congestive heart failure, a term commonly used when referring to both left and right sided heart failure. Which of the following is(are) the primary symptom(s) of right sided heart failure: *	a) Dyspnea and cyanosis b) Peripheral edema c) Hepatomegaly d) b and c
20. Symptoms of left sided heart failure include: *	a) Orthopnea b) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea c) Dependent edema d) a and b
21. If a patients total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is absorbed before the next volume of TPN is provided by the pharmacy, the nurse should: *	a) Discontinue the system and flush the catheter with heparin and saline b) Leave the system intact and notify the pharmacy immediately c) Run D10W at the same rate as the ordered TPN until the TPN solution arrives; unless contraindicated for this patient d) Run normal saline at a TKO rate
22. Mrs. Nelson is diagnosed as having primary or essential hypertension, which has no identifiable medical cause. The nurses assessment and intervention requires the following: *	a) Careful monitoring of blood pressure at frequent intervals b) Determination of nosebleeds; anginal pain; dyspnea; alterations in vision; vertigo or headaches c) Education of patient and significant other regarding treatment regimen d) All of the above
23. Which of the following potential post operative complications will the nurse be monitoring for a patient who had lower extremity vascular surgery for arterial occlusive disease: *	a) Deep vein thrombosis and dysrhythmias b) Bleeding and vascular occlusion c) Septicemia and atelectasis d) Pulmonary embolus and venous stasis
24. How does morphine sulfate relieve the symptoms of acute pulmonary edema: *	a) Causes renal vasoconstriction b) Causes coronary artery vasodilation c) Decreases peripheral resistance so blood can be re-distributed from pulmonary circulation to periphery d) Increases the volume of circulating blood
25. What is the most specific indicator of renal function: *	a) Blood urea nitrogen level b) Serum creatinine concentration c) Urine specific gravity d) Serum bicarbonate level
26. Your patient has had a thoracotomy. She returns to the unit with a closed chest drainage system. You should FIRST check the following: *	a) Amount and color of drainage b) If tidaling is occurring c) Positioning the system below the level of the patients chest d) All of the above
27. Nursing care of the patient with a Hemovac includes the following EXCEPT: *	a) Noting color and amount of drainage b) Emptying Hemovac if half full or more c) Increasing suction by attaching to continuous wall suction when drainage decreases d) Maintaining suction by compressing evacuator after emptying
28. The physician orders Heparin 7,500 units subcutaneously q 8 hours. You have available Heparin 10,000 units/mL. How many mL will you give: *	a) 0.75 mLb) 0.50 mLc) 0.10 mLd) None of the above because Heparin is not given subcutaneously
29. The physician orders oxygen per nasal cannula for the patient with COPD. Which of the following is an appropriate order: *	a) Oxygen at 6 L/min b) Oxygen at 4 L/min c) Oxygen at 2 L/min d) Oxygen at 8 L/min
30. The most common pulmonary complications seen with AIDS are due to infection with: *	a) Cytomegalovirus b) Legionella c) Mycobacterium avium intracellular d) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
31. The following can cause an increase in serum Digoxin levels EXCEPT: *	a) Antacids b) Diltiazem c) Low magnesium levels d) High calcium levels
32. Clinical presentation of a patient with endocarditis may include: *	a) Murmurs b) Low grade fever c) Fatigue d) All of the above
33. Dobutamine is often administered to patients with low cardiac output because of the following: *	a) Positive inotropic action b) Decreased vascular resistance c) Increased renal and mesenteric blood flow at low doses d) a and b
34. All of the following statements are FALSE EXCEPT: *	a) A conscious asymptomatic patient with an accelerated idioventricular rhythm with a rate of 80 should be prophylactically treated with Lidocaine b) A demand pacemaker increases and decreases rates according to the oxygen demand of the heart c) If your patient with a pacemaker has hiccoughs; you would have them breathe into a paper bag d) The initial treatment for a conscious patient presenting with ventricular tachycardia is Lidocaine
35. Allows controlled blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle: *	a) Tricuspid valve b) A V Node c) Left atrium d) S A Node
36. The heart chamber into which oxygenated blood first returns from the lungs is: *	a) Tricuspid valve b) A V Node c) Left atrium d) S A Node
37. The normal pacemaker of the heart is: *	a) Tricuspid valve b) A V Node c) Left atrium d) S A Node
38. Delays electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles to allow time for both ventricles to fill: *	a) Tricuspid valve b) A V Node c) Left atrium d) S A Node