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EMERGENCY ROOM EXAM
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1. Isuprel does all of the following EXCEPT: *
a) Cause ventricular irritability
b) Increase myocardial 02 demand
c) Decrease AV conduction
d) Cause tachy arrhythmia
2. The correct dose of Pitocin for a postpartum patient is: *
a) 20 to 30 units/1000 ml NS run @ tko rate
b) 10 to 20 units/1000 ml NS run @ 100 - 200 ml hr
c) 1 to 5 units/1000 ml NS run @ 50 ml hr
3. What is the most common side effect of Valium: *
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachypnea
c) Decreased respirations
d) Tachycardia
4. What is the drug of choice for a diabetic patient when an IV cannot be established: *
a) Lidocaine
b) Benadryl
c) Glucagon
d) Adrenalin
5. Side effects of Adenosine include all EXCEPT: *
a) Nausea
b) Hypotension
c) Lightheadedness
d) Ventricular fibrillation
6. You have a patient who has a systolic blood pressure of 70, pulse of 70 and respirations of 24. What drug would be indicated: *
a) Lidocaine 1 gm/250 D5W
b) Isuprel 1 mg/250 D5W
c) Dopamine 400 mg/500 ml D5W
d) Atropine 1 mg/250 ml D5W
7. Naloxone is indicated for which of the following conditions: *
a) Abdominal pain
b) Overdose of opiates
c) Asthma
d) Closed head injury
8. Alupent is used in which of the following patient conditions: *
a) CVA
b) Asthma
c) Closed head injury
d) Appendicitis
9. Morphine is indicated for which of the following conditions: *
a) Analgesia
b) Relief of anxiety
c Venous pooling
d) Increased intracranial pressure
10. A 23 year old, one week postpartum, patient presents with left sided chest pain which is sharp in nature. What condition would you suspect: *
a) Heart attack
b) Pulmonary embolus
c) Pulmonary edema
d) Toxemia
11. Restlessness and combativeness are signs of: *
a) Hypoxia
b) Fractured extremity
c) Normal electrolytes
d) None of the above
12. You have a patient who has gone into pulmonary edema. What would be the drug of choice: *
a) Benadryl
b) Lasix
c) Lidocaine
d) Atopine
13. All of the following are complications of CPR EXCEPT: *
a) Effective pulse
b) Rib fractures
c) Ruptured spleen
d) Lacerated liver
14. Two complications of seizures are hypoxia and aspiration: *
a) True
b) False
15. Decerebrate and decorticate posturing indicate: *
a) Pulmonary infraction
b) Myocardial infarction
c) Sepsis
d) Brain stem injury
16. A 52 year old male presents to your emergency department with a complaint of chest pain. His vitals are 90/50 - 32-24. His cardiac monitor shows bradycardia with ventricular escape beats. The drug of choice would be: *
a) Lidocaine
b) Atropine
c) Adrenalin
d) Calcium chloride
17. A patient presents to your emergency department with hives, a rash throughout his body and has shortness of breath. The drug of choice would be: *
a) Alupent
b) Benadryl
c) Lidocaine
d) Atropine
18. Nitroglycerin has all of the following side effects EXCEPT:
a) Vasodilatation
b) Venous pooling
c) Headache
d) Hypertension
19. Aphonia and stridor are signs of:
a) Upper airway obstruction
b) Cardiac Tamponade
c) Congestive heart failure
d) Pulmonary edema
20. All of the following are signs of hypoglycemia EXCEPT:
a) Excessive urination
b) Irritability
c) Moist skin
d) Cool temperature
21. What effect does hyperventilation have on the brain:
a) Shrinks the brain
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Decreased oxygenation
d) Has no effect on the brain
22. A gun shot wound is classified more dangerous than a stab wound:
a) True
b) False
23. A traffic collision victim presents with a hard non-distended belly and complaint of left shoulder pain. You might suspect:
a) Spleen injury
b) Ruptured diaphragm
c) Pneumothorax
24. All are signs of cardiac tamponade EXCEPT:
a) Distant heart sounds
b) Hypotension
c) Dyspnea and cyanosis
d) Strong pulse
25. When assessing a head trauma victim you discover clear drainage from the ear. The treatment would be:
a) A tight pressure dressing
b) A loose dressing
c) Irrigating the effected ear with normal saline
d) Lower the head
26. What is the bony protrusion on the back of the neck:
a) C-1
b) C-7
c) T-1
d) Adams apple
27. The most common rhythm found in a pulseless and unconscious patient is:
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Ventricular fibrillation
c) Ventricular standstill
d) Ventricular tachycardia
28. You have a G.S.W. admitted to your emergency department. What orders might you anticipate:
a) 2 large bore IVs
b) 02 therapy
c) Lactated Ringers
d) All of the above
29. When are you allowed to stop CPR:
a) You are exhausted and can not go on
b) Your patient develops a rhythm and pulse
c) You turn the patient over to an M. D.
d) All of the above
30. Which of the following would be considered a Chief Complaint
a) Gallop rhythm
b) Decreased capillary filling
c) Intercostal breathing
d) None of the above
31. In an apneic patient you might anticipate the C02 to be elevated and the pH to be low:
a) True
b) False
32. Your LEAST concern with any cardiac rhythm is:
a) Wedge pressure
b) Systolic blood pressure
c) Tissue perfusion
d) Heart rate
33. Upon assessing a patient with a complaint of weakness you note 2 plus pedal edema, neck vein distention and bibasilar rales. What conclusions might you make:
a) CVA
b) Right sided heart failure
c) Pulmonary embolus
d) Sepsis
34. The most common emergency in a child is:
a) Head injury
b) Febrile seizure
c) Overdose
d) None of the above
35. If asked to take vital signs on a child you would take a:
a) Pulse
b) Respiration
c) Blood pressure
d) All of the above
36. As a rule of thumb you give 1 GRAIN of Tylenol for each year of age:
a) True
b) False
37. A child has fallen off his bike. Upon examination a head injury, fractured tibia and fibula are discovered. The parents are not available. What would you do:
a) Call the police department
b) Treat the child
c) Do nothing
d) Transfer to another hospital
e) A and B only
38. Cooling measures consist of:
a) Cool; wet towels
b) Cool tepid bath
c) Ice packs for high fever
d) All of the above
39. What specific physical signs may indicate acute respiratory distress in the adult asthmatic patient:
a) Paroxysmal coughing
b) Sternocludomastoid retractions
c) Audible wheezing
d) Vomiting
40. Upon administering nitroglycerin to an anginal patient, the nurse should anticipate which of the following:
a) Hypotension
b) General vasoconstriction
c) An increased venous return
d) General analgesia
41. Your main concern when dealing with a flail chest is:
a) Adequate ventilation
b) Good chest expansion
c) Symmetry of chest
d) All of the above
42. STABBING PAIN to the left anterior chest meets trauma center criteria:
a) True
b) False
43. P.A.T. and tachy-dysrhythmias decrease the diastolic filling time:
a) True
b) False
44. Narcan reverses which of the following drugs:
a) Codeine
b) Morphine sulfate
c) Heroin
d) All of the above
45. Dopamine has what effect:
a) Inotropic
b) Chronotropic
c) Rhythmiticity
46. The age limits of a
a) 0-10
b) 1-14
c) 14-16
d) None of the above
47. The first drug of choice in anaphalaxis shock is:
a) Lidocaine
b) Benadryl
c) Atropine
d) None of the above
48. A physician prescribes ibuprofen for left elbow tendonitis. The nurse recognizes this drug is a:
a) Synthetic narcotic
b) Salicylate
c) Tricyclic antidepressant
d) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent
49. Which early complication should a nurse assess for a patient with a femoral shaft fracture: *
a) Delayed union
b) Non-union
c) Fat embolism
d) Infection
50. The nurse would expect which patient to be at highest risk for a pelvic fracture: *
a) A 16 year old boy who sustained a football related injury
b) An 80 year old woman who fell while walking in a nursing home
c) A 30 year old man who was involved in a motorcycle accident
d) A 30 year old man who fell from a window landing on his feet